PAST PAPERS MCAT
Note : Remaining Papers Will be Uploaded Soon
Note : Remaining Papers Will be Uploaded Soon
PAPER 2011
Thursday, June 5, 2014
MCAT 2011 Physics
sponsored links
MCAT physics 2011
Note : Answers is at Bottom Of Post
1) An object having spherical shape of radius r experiences a retarding force F from a fluid of co-efficient of viscosity ‘ ῃ‘ when moving through the fluid with speed v . what is the ratio of retarding force to speed
a) 6 pi ῃ r^2
b) 6 pi ῃ/r^2
c) 6 pi ῃ r
d) 6 pi ῃ/r
2) For interference of light waves to take place, the required condition is
a) the path difference of the light waves from the two sources must be large
b) the interfering waves must be non-coherent
c) the light waves may come from different sources
d) the light waves may come from two coherent sources
3) the property of bending of light around an obstacle and spreading of light waves into geometric shadow of an obstacle is called
a) diffraction
b) polarization
c) quantization of light
d) interference of light
4) the normal human eye can focus a sharp image of an object on the eye if the object is located at certain distance called
a) least point
b) near point
c) far point
d) distinct point
5) a source of sound wave emits waves of frequency ‘f’ . if ‘v’ is the speed of sound waves, then what will be the wavelength of the waves
a) v/f
b) vf
c) (v-u)/f
d) (v-u)f
6) the spectrum of a star’s light is measured and the wavelength of one of the lines as the sodium’s line is found to be 589nm. The same line has the wavelength of 497nm when observed in the laboratory. This means the star is
a) moving away from the earth
b) moving towards the earth
c) stationary
d) revolving around the planet
7) what is the period of mass spring system during SHM if the ratio of mass to spring constant is 1/4?
a) pi
b) 2pi
c) 1/pi
d) 1/2pi
8) a wire is stretched by a force which causes an extension . the energy is stored in it only when:
a) extension of wire is proportional to force applied
b) the cross section area of the wire remains constant
c) the wire is not stretched beyond its elastic limit
d) the weight of wire is negligible
9) which statement is correct
a) Elasticity is that property of the body which enables the body to regain its original dimension
b) elasticity is that property of a body that does not allow it to return to its original shape
c) Elasticity is that property of a body that allows it to retain its original shape and dimension after the stress is removed
d) Elasticity is that property of a body that obeys hook’s law
10) which of the following is the expression of root mean square speed of a gas having n number of molecules contained in the container?
a) sq. root (V1^2 + V2^2 +V3^2 + …… + Vn^2)/n
b) (V1^2 + V2^2 +V3^2 + …… + Vn^2)/n
c) sq. root (V1 + V2 +V3 + …… + Vn)/n
d) (V1 + V2 +V3 + …… + Vn)/n
11) for a gas of volume V in its equilibrium state, if the pressure does change with time then total kinetic energy of gas is constant because
a) collisions between gas molecules occur
b) collisions between gas molecules occur linearly
c) collisions must be elastic
d) collisions must be in elastic
12) when the dimensions of both sides of an equation are equal then the equation is said to be
a) simultaneous
b) homogeneous
c) instantaneous
d) quadratic
13) two long parallel wires Wire 1 and Wire 2 repel each other what could be the reason ?
a) Both carry current in same direction
b) both carry current in opposite directions
c) wire 1 has current but wire 2 has no current
d) wire 2 has current wire 1 has no current
14) if the number of turns of a solenoid circular coil is doubled but the current in the coil and radius of the coil remains same, then what will be the magnetic flux density produced by the coil?
a) magnetic flux density will be halved
b) magnetic flux density increases by different amount at different points
c) magnetic flux density remains unchanged
d) magnetic flux density will be doubled
15) which of the following isotope is used to estimate the circulation of blood in a patient
a) Carbon-14
b) Carbon-12
c) Phosphorus-32
d) Sodium-24
16) for the radiotherapy of a patient it is required to double the absorbed dose in gray. What step should be taken?
a) energy must be quartered
b) energy must be halved
c) energy must be increased four times
d) energy must be doubled
17) which of the following is the proper way to study the sinusoidal waveform of the voltage?
a) voltage is connected to X input and the time base is switched of
b) voltage is connected to Y input and the time base is switched on
c) voltage is connected to Y input and the time based is switched of
d) voltage is connected to X input and the time based is switched on
18) cathode ray oscilloscope consists of following parts
a) filament, cathode, grid , anode
b) cathode, anode, capacitor, screen
c) emitter, base, collector, resistor
d) resistor, capacitor, inductor, ___
19) if 2A current passes through a resistor when connected to a certain battery. If the resistance is replaced by the double resistance then the current will become
a) 2A
b) 4A
c) 6A
d) 1A
20) What is the order of wavelength of x-rays
a) 10^-6
b) 10^-10
c) 10^-3
d) 10^0
21) A laser beam is
a) non coherent
b) mono chromatic
c) both
d) none
22) what is the torque acting on the pendulum of length L inclined at an angle theta
a) mgL
b) mgL sin theta
c) 0
d) mgL cos theta
23) cathode rays are
a) dependent on nature of gas
b) depend on target material
c) independent on nature of gas
d) none
24) 1 degree is equal to
a) Л/180
b) 180/Л
c) 2Л/180
d) Л/57.3
25) if the resistance in the circuit is doubled then what’s the current now
a) half
b) zero
c) double
d) constant
26) THE HALF LIFE OF A RADIOACTIVE ELEMENT is 1500 years the fraction of sample that left after 6000 years
a. 1/2
b. 1/16
c. 1/8
d 1/4
27) HALF LIFE OF RADON IS
A. 1500YEAR
B. 23.5 MIN
C. 3.8 DAYS
D. 4*10 ^789
28) in which of the following detectors impulse is independent of energy of particle
a. GM counter
b. solid state
c. Wilson cloud
d all
29) THE SHORTEST WAVELENTH OF CONTONOUS X RAY , EMITTED FROM AN X RAY TUBE , DEPEND ON
A. I in tube
b. Voltage applied
c. nature of tube
d. atomic number of target
30) 4200 VOLT IS USED in x-ray tube to accelerate electron the speed of x ray
a. 2 *1O^8
B. 3*10 ^8
C2* 10^7
D. 3* 10^9
1) c2) d3) a4) b5) a6) a7) a8) a9) c10) a11) c12) b13) b14) d15) d16) d17) b18) a19) d20) b21) b22) b23) c24) a25) a26) b27) c28) a29) d30) b
1) An object having spherical shape of radius r experiences a retarding force F from a fluid of co-efficient of viscosity ‘ ῃ‘ when moving through the fluid with speed v . what is the ratio of retarding force to speed
a) 6 pi ῃ r^2
b) 6 pi ῃ/r^2
c) 6 pi ῃ r
d) 6 pi ῃ/r
2) For interference of light waves to take place, the required condition is
a) the path difference of the light waves from the two sources must be large
b) the interfering waves must be non-coherent
c) the light waves may come from different sources
d) the light waves may come from two coherent sources
3) the property of bending of light around an obstacle and spreading of light waves into geometric shadow of an obstacle is called
a) diffraction
b) polarization
c) quantization of light
d) interference of light
4) the normal human eye can focus a sharp image of an object on the eye if the object is located at certain distance called
a) least point
b) near point
c) far point
d) distinct point
5) a source of sound wave emits waves of frequency ‘f’ . if ‘v’ is the speed of sound waves, then what will be the wavelength of the waves
a) v/f
b) vf
c) (v-u)/f
d) (v-u)f
6) the spectrum of a star’s light is measured and the wavelength of one of the lines as the sodium’s line is found to be 589nm. The same line has the wavelength of 497nm when observed in the laboratory. This means the star is
a) moving away from the earth
b) moving towards the earth
c) stationary
d) revolving around the planet
7) what is the period of mass spring system during SHM if the ratio of mass to spring constant is 1/4?
a) pi
b) 2pi
c) 1/pi
d) 1/2pi
8) a wire is stretched by a force which causes an extension . the energy is stored in it only when:
a) extension of wire is proportional to force applied
b) the cross section area of the wire remains constant
c) the wire is not stretched beyond its elastic limit
d) the weight of wire is negligible
9) which statement is correct
a) Elasticity is that property of the body which enables the body to regain its original dimension
b) elasticity is that property of a body that does not allow it to return to its original shape
c) Elasticity is that property of a body that allows it to retain its original shape and dimension after the stress is removed
d) Elasticity is that property of a body that obeys hook’s law
10) which of the following is the expression of root mean square speed of a gas having n number of molecules contained in the container?
a) sq. root (V1^2 + V2^2 +V3^2 + …… + Vn^2)/n
b) (V1^2 + V2^2 +V3^2 + …… + Vn^2)/n
c) sq. root (V1 + V2 +V3 + …… + Vn)/n
d) (V1 + V2 +V3 + …… + Vn)/n
11) for a gas of volume V in its equilibrium state, if the pressure does change with time then total kinetic energy of gas is constant because
a) collisions between gas molecules occur
b) collisions between gas molecules occur linearly
c) collisions must be elastic
d) collisions must be in elastic
12) when the dimensions of both sides of an equation are equal then the equation is said to be
a) simultaneous
b) homogeneous
c) instantaneous
d) quadratic
13) two long parallel wires Wire 1 and Wire 2 repel each other what could be the reason ?
a) Both carry current in same direction
b) both carry current in opposite directions
c) wire 1 has current but wire 2 has no current
d) wire 2 has current wire 1 has no current
14) if the number of turns of a solenoid circular coil is doubled but the current in the coil and radius of the coil remains same, then what will be the magnetic flux density produced by the coil?
a) magnetic flux density will be halved
b) magnetic flux density increases by different amount at different points
c) magnetic flux density remains unchanged
d) magnetic flux density will be doubled
15) which of the following isotope is used to estimate the circulation of blood in a patient
a) Carbon-14
b) Carbon-12
c) Phosphorus-32
d) Sodium-24
16) for the radiotherapy of a patient it is required to double the absorbed dose in gray. What step should be taken?
a) energy must be quartered
b) energy must be halved
c) energy must be increased four times
d) energy must be doubled
17) which of the following is the proper way to study the sinusoidal waveform of the voltage?
a) voltage is connected to X input and the time base is switched of
b) voltage is connected to Y input and the time base is switched on
c) voltage is connected to Y input and the time based is switched of
d) voltage is connected to X input and the time based is switched on
18) cathode ray oscilloscope consists of following parts
a) filament, cathode, grid , anode
b) cathode, anode, capacitor, screen
c) emitter, base, collector, resistor
d) resistor, capacitor, inductor, ___
19) if 2A current passes through a resistor when connected to a certain battery. If the resistance is replaced by the double resistance then the current will become
a) 2A
b) 4A
c) 6A
d) 1A
20) What is the order of wavelength of x-rays
a) 10^-6
b) 10^-10
c) 10^-3
d) 10^0
21) A laser beam is
a) non coherent
b) mono chromatic
c) both
d) none
22) what is the torque acting on the pendulum of length L inclined at an angle theta
a) mgL
b) mgL sin theta
c) 0
d) mgL cos theta
23) cathode rays are
a) dependent on nature of gas
b) depend on target material
c) independent on nature of gas
d) none
24) 1 degree is equal to
a) Л/180
b) 180/Л
c) 2Л/180
d) Л/57.3
25) if the resistance in the circuit is doubled then what’s the current now
a) half
b) zero
c) double
d) constant
26) THE HALF LIFE OF A RADIOACTIVE ELEMENT is 1500 years the fraction of sample that left after 6000 years
a. 1/2
b. 1/16
c. 1/8
d 1/4
27) HALF LIFE OF RADON IS
A. 1500YEAR
B. 23.5 MIN
C. 3.8 DAYS
D. 4*10 ^789
28) in which of the following detectors impulse is independent of energy of particle
a. GM counter
b. solid state
c. Wilson cloud
d all
29) THE SHORTEST WAVELENTH OF CONTONOUS X RAY , EMITTED FROM AN X RAY TUBE , DEPEND ON
A. I in tube
b. Voltage applied
c. nature of tube
d. atomic number of target
30) 4200 VOLT IS USED in x-ray tube to accelerate electron the speed of x ray
a. 2 *1O^8
B. 3*10 ^8
C2* 10^7
D. 3* 10^9
1) c2) d3) a4) b5) a6) a7) a8) a9) c10) a11) c12) b13) b14) d15) d16) d17) b18) a19) d20) b21) b22) b23) c24) a25) a26) b27) c28) a29) d30) b
MCAT 2011 Chemistry
sponsored links
1) it is experimentally found that catalyst is used to
a) lower the activation energy
b) increase the activation energy
c) lower the pH
d) decrease the temperature of other reactants
2) carbon exists as allotropes, which are different crystalline molecular forms of the same substance. Graphite and diamond are allotropes of carbon. Diamond is non-conductor while graphite is conductor because
a) graphite has a layered structure
b) in graphite all valence electrons are tetrahedrally bounded
c) in graphite one of the valence electron is free to move
d) graphite is soft and greasy
3) when the elements of group 2A are exposed to air , they quickly become coated with layer of oxide. What is the purpose of this oxide layer
a) the oxide layer exposes the metal to atmospheric attack
b) the oxide layer increases the reactivity of metal
c) the oxide layer protects the metal from further attack
d) the oxide layer gives the metal a shiny look
4) hydrogenation of unsaturated oils is done by using
a) finally divided nickel
b) finally divided iron
c) vanadium pentaoxide
d) copper
5) tick the correct statement
a) chelates are more stable than ordinary complexes
b) ordinary complexes are more stable than chelates
c) monodentate ligand form chelate
d) chelates have no ring structure
6) in contact process the catalyst used for conversion of SO2 to SO3 is
a) magnesium oxide
b) Aluminium oxide
c) silicon dioxide
d) vanadium pentaoxide
7) the unpolluted rain water is slightly acidic due to reaction of rain water with
a) Sulphur dioxide
b) oxides of nitrogen
c) carbon dioxide
d) hydrocarbons present in air
8) the compound with an atom which has an unshared pair of electron is called
a) nucleophile
b) electrophile
c) protophile
d) none of these
9) 1-chloropropane and 2-chloropropane are isomers of each other. The type of isomerism between them is
a) Cis-trans isomerism
b) chain isomerism
c) positional isomerism
d) functional group isomerism
10) benzene in presence of ACl3 gives acetophenone when reacts with
a) acetyl chloride
b) acetic acid
c) ethyl benzene
d) ethanoic acid
11) the substitution of –H group by –NO2 group in benzene is called
a) nitration
b) ammonolusis
c) sulphonation
d) reduction of benzene
12) when purely alcoholic solution of sodium/potassium hydroxide and halogenalkane are refluxed an alkene is formed :
CH3-CH2-Br (in presence of alcoholic KOH )--- > CH2=CH2
what is the mechanism of the reaction
a) elimination
b) dehydration
c) debromination
d) nucleophilic substitution
13) organic compound carbon tetra chloride is used as
a) lubricant
b)solvent
c) oxidant
d) plastic
14) an alcohol is converted into an aldehyde with same number of carbon atoms in the presence of K2CrO4/H2SO4 . the alcohol is
a) CH2C(CH)2OH
b)CH3CH2CH2OH
c)(CH3)3COH
d)(CH3)2CHOH
a) remains same
b) increases
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases
43) in all oxidation reactions, atoms of an element in a chemical species lose electrons and increases their
a) oxidation state
b) reduction states
c) electrode
d) negative charges
44) in Haber process for manufacturing of ammonia , nitrogen is taken from
a) proteins occurring in living bodies
b) ammonium salts obtained industrially
c) air
d) minerals containing nitrates
45) in comparison to oxygen gas a strong triple covalent bond is present between nitrogen atoms in a molecule and therefore nitrogen gas is:
a) highly reactive gas
b) completely inert like noble gases
c) very less reactive gas
d) moderately reactive gas
46) the –NH-CO group is called
a) amide group
b) amino group
c) protein linkage
d) peptide linkage
47) which of the following has an amino R group
a) lysine
b) proline
c) valine
d) alanine
ANSWERS
1) b2) c3) c4) a5) a6) d7) c8) a9) c10) a11) a12) a13) b14) b15) c16) a17) b18) a19) d20) c21) c22) c23) d24) b25) a26) d27) d28) d29) d30) d31) a32) d33) b34) d35) a36) a37) c38) c39) b
1) it is experimentally found that catalyst is used to
a) lower the activation energy
b) increase the activation energy
c) lower the pH
d) decrease the temperature of other reactants
2) carbon exists as allotropes, which are different crystalline molecular forms of the same substance. Graphite and diamond are allotropes of carbon. Diamond is non-conductor while graphite is conductor because
a) graphite has a layered structure
b) in graphite all valence electrons are tetrahedrally bounded
c) in graphite one of the valence electron is free to move
d) graphite is soft and greasy
3) when the elements of group 2A are exposed to air , they quickly become coated with layer of oxide. What is the purpose of this oxide layer
a) the oxide layer exposes the metal to atmospheric attack
b) the oxide layer increases the reactivity of metal
c) the oxide layer protects the metal from further attack
d) the oxide layer gives the metal a shiny look
4) hydrogenation of unsaturated oils is done by using
a) finally divided nickel
b) finally divided iron
c) vanadium pentaoxide
d) copper
5) tick the correct statement
a) chelates are more stable than ordinary complexes
b) ordinary complexes are more stable than chelates
c) monodentate ligand form chelate
d) chelates have no ring structure
6) in contact process the catalyst used for conversion of SO2 to SO3 is
a) magnesium oxide
b) Aluminium oxide
c) silicon dioxide
d) vanadium pentaoxide
7) the unpolluted rain water is slightly acidic due to reaction of rain water with
a) Sulphur dioxide
b) oxides of nitrogen
c) carbon dioxide
d) hydrocarbons present in air
8) the compound with an atom which has an unshared pair of electron is called
a) nucleophile
b) electrophile
c) protophile
d) none of these
9) 1-chloropropane and 2-chloropropane are isomers of each other. The type of isomerism between them is
a) Cis-trans isomerism
b) chain isomerism
c) positional isomerism
d) functional group isomerism
10) benzene in presence of ACl3 gives acetophenone when reacts with
a) acetyl chloride
b) acetic acid
c) ethyl benzene
d) ethanoic acid
11) the substitution of –H group by –NO2 group in benzene is called
a) nitration
b) ammonolusis
c) sulphonation
d) reduction of benzene
12) when purely alcoholic solution of sodium/potassium hydroxide and halogenalkane are refluxed an alkene is formed :
CH3-CH2-Br (in presence of alcoholic KOH )--- > CH2=CH2
what is the mechanism of the reaction
a) elimination
b) dehydration
c) debromination
d) nucleophilic substitution
13) organic compound carbon tetra chloride is used as
a) lubricant
b)solvent
c) oxidant
d) plastic
14) an alcohol is converted into an aldehyde with same number of carbon atoms in the presence of K2CrO4/H2SO4 . the alcohol is
a) CH2C(CH)2OH
b)CH3CH2CH2OH
c)(CH3)3COH
d)(CH3)2CHOH
15)in the mass spectrometer ; detector or collector measures the :
a)masses of isotopes
b)percentages of isotopes
c)relative abundances of isotopes
d)mass numbers of isotopes
16)how many chlorine atoms are in 2 moles of Cl :
a)2 x 6.022x10^23 atoms
b)35.5 x 6.022x10^23 atoms
c)2x10^23 atoms
d)2x6.02x10^22 atoms
a)masses of isotopes
b)percentages of isotopes
c)relative abundances of isotopes
d)mass numbers of isotopes
16)how many chlorine atoms are in 2 moles of Cl :
a)2 x 6.022x10^23 atoms
b)35.5 x 6.022x10^23 atoms
c)2x10^23 atoms
d)2x6.02x10^22 atoms
17)boiling point of water is higher than petrol , because
intermolecular forces in water are :
a)weaker than petrol
b)stronger than petrol
c)same as in petrol
d)negligible
a)weaker than petrol
b)stronger than petrol
c)same as in petrol
d)negligible
18)DNA molecule is double stranded , in which two chains of
DNA are twisted around each other by:
a)hydrogen bonds
b)Van der Waal’s forces
c)covalent bonds
d)dative bonds
a)hydrogen bonds
b)Van der Waal’s forces
c)covalent bonds
d)dative bonds
19)the elements for which the value of ionization energy is
low can:
a)gain electrons readily
b) gain electrons with difficulty
C)lose electron less readily
d) lose electron readily
20)the nature of cathode rays in discharge tube :
a)depends upon the nature of the gas used in discharge tube
b) depends upon the nature of the cathode used in discharge tube
c)is independent of the nature of the gas used in discharge tube
d) depends upon the nature of anode in the discharge tube
a)gain electrons readily
b) gain electrons with difficulty
C)lose electron less readily
d) lose electron readily
20)the nature of cathode rays in discharge tube :
a)depends upon the nature of the gas used in discharge tube
b) depends upon the nature of the cathode used in discharge tube
c)is independent of the nature of the gas used in discharge tube
d) depends upon the nature of anode in the discharge tube
21)the ability of the atom in the covalent bond to attract
the bonding electrons is called:
a)ionization energy
b)ionic bond energy
c)electronegativity
d)electron affinity
a)ionization energy
b)ionic bond energy
c)electronegativity
d)electron affinity
22)the paramagnetic character of substances is due to the
presence of :
A)bond pairs of electrons
b)lone pairs of electrons
c)unpaired electrons in the atom or molecule
d)paired electrons in the valence shell of atoms
A)bond pairs of electrons
b)lone pairs of electrons
c)unpaired electrons in the atom or molecule
d)paired electrons in the valence shell of atoms
23)lattice energy of an ionic crystal is the enthalpy of:
a)combustion
b)dissociation
c)dissolution
d)formation
a)combustion
b)dissociation
c)dissolution
d)formation
24)mole fraction of any component is the ratio of moles
of all components in a:
a)compounds
b)solution
c)molecule
d)solid
a)compounds
b)solution
c)molecule
d)solid
25) molarity is defined as the number of moles of solute of
any substance dissolved:
a)per dm^3 of water
b)in one g of water
c)per m^3 of water
d)in 100 ml of water
a)per dm^3 of water
b)in one g of water
c)per m^3 of water
d)in 100 ml of water
26)in electrolytic cell a salt bridge is used in order to :
a)pass the electric current
b)prevent the flow of ions
c)mix solutions of two half cells
d)allow movement of ions b/w two cells
a)pass the electric current
b)prevent the flow of ions
c)mix solutions of two half cells
d)allow movement of ions b/w two cells
27)if in AgCl solution , some salt of NaCl is added , AgCl
will be precipitated due to :
a)solubility
b)electrolyte
c)un saturation effect
d)common ion effect
a)solubility
b)electrolyte
c)un saturation effect
d)common ion effect
28)if Ka for an acid is higher , the stronger is the acid ,
relate the strength of acid with pKa:
a)higher pKa , weaker the acid
b)lower pKa , stronger the acid
c)pKa has no relation with the strength of an acid
d)both a and b
a)higher pKa , weaker the acid
b)lower pKa , stronger the acid
c)pKa has no relation with the strength of an acid
d)both a and b
29)according to the collision theory of bimolecular
reactions in gas phase , minimum amount of energy required for an effective collision
is known as :
a)heat of reaction
b)rate of reaction
c)has no effect on the reaction
d)energy of activation
30) consider the following reaction:
R-CHO + 2[Ag(NH3))2]OH ----- > RCOONH4 + 2Ag + 2NH3 + H2O
this reaction represents which of the following tests
a) Fehling test
b) benedict test
c) ninhydrin test
d) tollen’s test
31) a polymer in which the number of amino acid residue is greater than 100 or the molecular mass is greater than 10,000 is called
a) protein
b) polypeptide
c) dipeptide
d) tripeptide
32) when hexanedioic acid is heated with hexamethylenediamine the compound formed is
a) polypeptide
b) ester
c) addition polymer
d) nylon 6,6
33) glucose and fructose are common example of
a) pentoses
b) hexoses
c) heptoses
d) butoses
34) the reaction between fats and caustic soda is called
a) hydrogenolysis
b) fermentation
c) carboxylation
d) saponification
35) macromolecules are defined as large molecules built up from small repeating units called
a) monomers
b) isomers
c) metamers
d) tautomers
36) PVC is an example of
a) addition polymer
b) condensation polymer
c) biopolymer
d) thermosetting polymer
37) Terylene, a polyester is an example of
a) biopolymer
b) lipids
c) condensation polymer
d) addition polymer
38) the suspected liver carcinogenic which also has a negative reproduction and developmental effects in human is
a) iodoform
b) bromoform
c) chloroform
d) tropoform
39) peroxyacetylene is an irritant to human beings and it effects
a) ears
b) eyes
c) nose
d) stomach
40) which enzyme is involved in fermentation of glucose?
a) zymase
b) invertase
c) urease
d) diastase
41) relative acidic strength of alcohol , phenol , water and carboxylic acids is
a) carboxylic acid > alcohol > phenol > water
b) carboxylic acid > phenol > water > alcohol
c) phenol > carboxylic acid > alcohol > water
d) water > phenol > alcohol > carboxylic acid
42) in standard
enthalpy of atmomization heat of surrounding a)heat of reaction
b)rate of reaction
c)has no effect on the reaction
d)energy of activation
30) consider the following reaction:
R-CHO + 2[Ag(NH3))2]OH ----- > RCOONH4 + 2Ag + 2NH3 + H2O
this reaction represents which of the following tests
a) Fehling test
b) benedict test
c) ninhydrin test
d) tollen’s test
31) a polymer in which the number of amino acid residue is greater than 100 or the molecular mass is greater than 10,000 is called
a) protein
b) polypeptide
c) dipeptide
d) tripeptide
32) when hexanedioic acid is heated with hexamethylenediamine the compound formed is
a) polypeptide
b) ester
c) addition polymer
d) nylon 6,6
33) glucose and fructose are common example of
a) pentoses
b) hexoses
c) heptoses
d) butoses
34) the reaction between fats and caustic soda is called
a) hydrogenolysis
b) fermentation
c) carboxylation
d) saponification
35) macromolecules are defined as large molecules built up from small repeating units called
a) monomers
b) isomers
c) metamers
d) tautomers
36) PVC is an example of
a) addition polymer
b) condensation polymer
c) biopolymer
d) thermosetting polymer
37) Terylene, a polyester is an example of
a) biopolymer
b) lipids
c) condensation polymer
d) addition polymer
38) the suspected liver carcinogenic which also has a negative reproduction and developmental effects in human is
a) iodoform
b) bromoform
c) chloroform
d) tropoform
39) peroxyacetylene is an irritant to human beings and it effects
a) ears
b) eyes
c) nose
d) stomach
40) which enzyme is involved in fermentation of glucose?
a) zymase
b) invertase
c) urease
d) diastase
41) relative acidic strength of alcohol , phenol , water and carboxylic acids is
a) carboxylic acid > alcohol > phenol > water
b) carboxylic acid > phenol > water > alcohol
c) phenol > carboxylic acid > alcohol > water
d) water > phenol > alcohol > carboxylic acid
a) remains same
b) increases
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases
43) in all oxidation reactions, atoms of an element in a chemical species lose electrons and increases their
a) oxidation state
b) reduction states
c) electrode
d) negative charges
44) in Haber process for manufacturing of ammonia , nitrogen is taken from
a) proteins occurring in living bodies
b) ammonium salts obtained industrially
c) air
d) minerals containing nitrates
45) in comparison to oxygen gas a strong triple covalent bond is present between nitrogen atoms in a molecule and therefore nitrogen gas is:
a) highly reactive gas
b) completely inert like noble gases
c) very less reactive gas
d) moderately reactive gas
46) the –NH-CO group is called
a) amide group
b) amino group
c) protein linkage
d) peptide linkage
47) which of the following has an amino R group
a) lysine
b) proline
c) valine
d) alanine
ANSWERS
1) b2) c3) c4) a5) a6) d7) c8) a9) c10) a11) a12) a13) b14) b15) c16) a17) b18) a19) d20) c21) c22) c23) d24) b25) a26) d27) d28) d29) d30) d31) a32) d33) b34) d35) a36) a37) c38) c39) b
MCAT 2011 Biology
sponsored links
88)which one of the following enzymes is temperature insensitive?
a)DNA polymerase i
b)Taq polymerase
c) DNA polymerase ii
d)RNA polymerase
Answers
1c
2a
3a
4a
5a
6a
7b
8b
9a
10c
11b
12c
13c
14b
15a
16a
17a
18c
19b
20c
21d
22b
23b
24a
25a
26c
27a
28d
29b
30a
31a
32d
33d
34b
35c
36d
37a
38a
38b
40a
41a
42a
43b
44d
45c
46b
47a
48d
49d
50c
51c
52b
52a
54b
55d
56d
57d
58a
59b
60b
61b
62a
63a
64b
65c
66c
67d
68a
69d
70b
71b
72a
73a
74a
75b
76d
77d
78a
79a
80c
81c
82c
83d
84d
85a
86c
87c
88b
MCAT 2011 Biology
Note : Answers is at Bottom Of Post
1) when
chromosomes uncoil, the nucleoli are reformed and two nuclei are the two poles
of the cell; stage is known as
A. prophase
B. metaphase
C. telophase
D. anaphase
2) Mental retardation, short stature, broad face and squint eyes are the symptoms of
A. Bown's syndrome
B. Klinefelter's syndrome
C. Turner's syndrome
D. XYZ syndrome
3) Chiasmata formation takes place during the process which is known as
A. crossing over
B. attachment
C. pairing
D. leptotene
4) healing of a wound and repair is the phenomenon which takes place by the process of
A. mitosis
B. meiosis
C. cell growth
D. mitosis and meiosis
5) Which one of the following is the main cause of cancer?
A. mutation
B. controlled cell division
C. regulated mitosis
D. haploid division
6) The covalent bond formed between two monosaccharides is called
A. glycosidic bond
B. hydrogen bond
C. peptide bond
D. disulphide bond
7) The bond formed between glucose and fructose to form sucrose is
A. 1,4 glycosidic linkage
B. 1,2 glycosidic linkage
C. 1,6 glycosidic linkage
D. 1,3 glycosidic linkage
8) In an amino acid in which the R-group is hydrogen, the amino acid will be
A. Alanine
B. Glycine
C. Leucine
D. Valine
9) Fatty acid are the organic compounds containing hydrogen, oxygen and one of the following are
A. carboxylic
B. Amino
C. acyl
D. sucrose
10) Liposomes are used in gene therapy against
A. hypercholesterolemia
B. coronary artery angioplasty
C. cystic fibrosis
D.severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
11) Genetically engineered cells are introduced into bone marrow cells in the treatment of
A. hypercholesterolemia
B. severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
C. cystic fibrosis
D. coronary artery angioplasty
12) Which one of the following is depleting and causing thinning if ozone
A. chlorine
B. bromine
C. chlorofluorocarbon
D. carbon
13) The typical environment of a particular organism population community is called
A. niche
B. ecosystem
C. habitat
D. biosphere
14) Excessive enrichment of water with nutrients by human activity by which large amount of living organic matter grows is called
A. archeotrophication
B. eutrophication
C. enrichment
D. low trophication
15) In an ecosystem, mycorrihza is an example of
A. symbiosis
B. predation
C. commensalism
D. parasitism
16) Successive stages of eating and being eaten by which recycling of materials and flow of energy takes place is called
A. food chain
B. food web
C. trophic level
D. food link
17) The sex of individuals of next generation always depends on one of the parent, who is
A. Heterogametic
B. Homogametic
C. Isogametic
D. Isomorphic
18) Which of the following will be haemophilic?
a) X(H)X(h)
b) X(H)X(H)
c) X(h)Y
d) X(H)Y
19) Which of the following is an example of X-linked recessive trait in humans?
A. Hypophosphatemic rickets
B. Colour blindness
C. Baldness
D. Beard growth
20) Which trait in human is an example of multiple alleles?
A. Eye colour
B. skin colour
C. ABO- blood group
D. Rh-blood group
21) When a gene pair at one locus interacts with another gene at another locus, the interaction is called
A. Dominance
B. Multiple allelism
C. Pleiotropy
D. Epistasis
22) The combination of a pentose sugar with a base result in a compound known as
A. Nucleotide
B. Nucleoside
C. Nucleic acid
D. Polynucleotide
23) An enzyme and substrate reacts through a special feature or site present in enzyme known as
A. Building site
B. Active site
C. Catalyst site
D. Inhibition site
24) The non-protein part of enzyme which is covalently and permanently bonded is called
A. Prosthetic group
B. co-factor
C. co-enzyme
D. Activator
25) one of the pyrimidine bases is absent in DNA
a) uracil
b) thymine
c) cytosine
d) adenine
26) enzymes increase the rate of reaction by
A. increasing temperature
B. decreasing pH
C. decreasing activation energy
D. increasing activation energy
27) Which one of the following diseases caused by enveloped RNA virus and spread in epidemic form?
A. Influenza
B. Herpes simplex
C. polio
D. small pox
28) The structure which contains the gene for drug resistance bacteria are
A. Nucleoids
B. Mesosomes
C. Chromatin bodies
D. Plasmids
29) Antibiotics that kill microbes immediately are called
A. Microbistatic
B. Microbicidal
C. Biostatic
D. Chemotherapeatic
30) Which one of the following fungi cause vaginal thrush?
A. Candida
B. Aspergillus
C. tortula
D. Penicillium
31) Body cavity of round worms is called
A. Pseudocoelom
B. Coelom
C. Acoelom
D. Enteron
32) Fasciola is endoparasite of
A. Colon
B. Liver
C. Small intestine
D. Bile duct
33) Trypanosoma is transmitted in human beings by
A. Plasmodium
B. Anopheles
C. House fly
D. Tse-tse fly
34) The nervous system develops from which of the following layer during embroynic development of animals?
A. Mesoderm
B. Ectoderm
C. Endoderm
D. Mesoderm and endoderm
35) Endosperm is formed as a result of
A. pollination
B. self-pollination
C. double fertilization
D. cross pollination
36) Which of the following enzyme is released in an inactive form?
A. Amylase
B. Lipase
C. Enterokinase
D. Pepsin
37)
Which of the following hormones stimulate the secretion of pancreatic juice from pancreas in liver?
A. Secretin
B. Pepsinogen
C. Gastrin
D. Both gastrin and secretin
38) in large intestine vitamin k is formed by the activity of
A. symbiotic bacteria
B. obligate parasite
C. papasitic bacteria
D. Facultative bacteria
39) During swallowing of food which structure close nasal opening?
A. Hard palate
B. Soft palate
C. Epiglottis
D. Larynx
40) The right atrium of the heart usually receives the
A. Deoxygenated blood
B. Oxygenated blood
C. Filtered blood
D. Non-filtered blood
41) The largest lymph duct called thoracic lymph duct drains into
A. Subclavian vein
B. Renal vein
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Hepatic portal vein
42) Which protein plays a major role in maintaining osmotic balance ?
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Prothrombin
43) The type of agranulocytes which stays in blood for a few hours and then enters tissues and become macrophages is
A. Lymphocytes
B. Monocytes
C. Eosinophil
D. Basophils
44) Reabsorption of water by counter current multiplier mechanism takes place at
A. Proximal tubule
B. Distal tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. Loop of henle
45) Antidiuretic hormone helps in reabsorption of water by changing permeability of
A. Proximal tubule
B. Distal tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. Loop of henle
46) During peritoneal dialysis, the dialysis fluid is introduced into which part of human body ?
A. Liver
B. abdomen
C. Kidney
D. Pancreas
47) Aldosterone helps in conservation or active absorption of
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Bicarbonate ions
48) Maximum reabsorption takes place in which part of the nephron ?
A. Distal tubule
B. Villi
C. Cortical tissue
D. Proximal tubule
49) Over-activity of sympathetic nervous system causes
A. Disturbance of vision
B. Constipation
C. Decrease in blood pressure
D. Increase in heart rate
50) Which structures respond when they are stimulated by impulse coming through motor neuron?
A. Receptors
B. Responses
C. Effectors
D. Transduction
51) Respiratory center is located in
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Medulla
D. Hypothalamus
52) A neurological condition characterized by involuntary tremors , diminished motor activity and rigidity is called
a) epilepsy
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Cerebellar tumours
53) A type of cells in human testes which produce testosterone is called
A. interstitial cells
B. germ cells
C. sertoli cells
D. spermatocytes
54) Breakdown of endometrium during mensuration is due to
A. increase in level of LH
B. decrease in level of progesterone
C. increase in level of progesterone
D. increase in level of oestrogen
55) Oogonia are produced in the germ cells
a) both uterus and cervix
b) cervix
c) uterus
d) ovary
56) Which of the following diseases can be prevented through vaccination ?
A. AIDS and cancer
B. Malaria and AIDS
C. Typhoid and cancer
D. Measles and mumps
57) Newly produced cells/ individuals which are identical to each other are known as
A. Genetically modified
B. Transgenic animals
C. Transgenic bacterias
D. Clones
58) Which of the following is a blood borne disease ?
A. Hepatitis
B. Cholora
C. Influenza
D. candidiasis
59) The control of pest has traditionally meant regulation by natural enemies, predators, parasites and pathogens; this type of control is known as
A. Cultural control
B. Biological control
C. Pesticides control
D. Insecticides control
60) Which of the following organelles is concerned with the cell scretion
A. Ribosomes
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Lysosomes
D. Mitochondria
61) Which of the following contains peptidoglycan cell wall ?
A. Penicillium
B. Bacterium
C. Adiantum
D. Polytrychum
62) The inner membrane of mitochondria is folded to form finger like structure called
A. Cristea
B. Vesicle
C. matrix
D. cisternae
63) the interior of the chloroplast is divided into heterogeneous structure, embedded in the matrix, known as
A. Grana
B. Stroma
C. Thylakoids
D. Cisternae
64) In which phase of the cell division the metabolic activity of the nucleus is high ?
A. Mitosis
B. Interphase
C. Meiosis
D. Cell cycle
65) Luteinizing hormone triggers
A. Cessation of oogenesis
B. Breakdown of oocyte
C. Ovulation
D. Development of zygote
66) Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease which is caused by
A. HIV / AIDS
B. Pseudomonas pyogenes
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Neisseria
67) Muscles is made up of many cells which are reffered to as
A. Myofilaments
B. Myofibrils
C. Sarcolemma
D. Muscles fiber
68) The length of myofibril from one Z-band to the next is known as
A. Sarcomere
B. Sarcolemma
C. Sarcoplasm
D. Muscle fiber
69) The calcium ions released during a muscle fiber contraction attach with
A. Myosin
B. Actin
C. Tropomyosin
D. Troponin
70) A muscle condition resulting from the accumulation of lactic acid and ionic imbalance is called
A. Tetany
B. Muscle fatigue
C. Cramp
D. Tetanus
71) The pigment which stores oxygen in muscles is
A. Hemoglobin
B. Myoglobin
C. Myosin
D. Actinomyosin
72) Neurosecretory cells are present in which part of brain
A. Hypothalamus
B. Midbrain
C. PONS
D. Cerebellum
73) which of the following is the function of glucagon hormone
a) glycogen à glucose
b) glucose à glycogen
c) glucose à lipids
d) glucose à proteins
74) Addison's disease is caused due to destruction of
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Pituitary adrenal axis
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Hypothalamus
75) Which group of hormone is made up of amino acids and their derivatives ?
A. Vasopressin and antidiuretic hormone
B. Epinephrine and non-epinephrine
C. Oestrogen and testosterone
D. Insulin and glucagon
76) Thymus gland is involved in maturation of
A. Platelets
B. B-lymphocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. T-lymphocytes
77) In passive immunity which of the following component are injected into blood
A. Antigens
B. Immunogens
C. Serum
D. Immunoglobulins
78) Mucous membranes are part of body defence system and they offer
A. Physical barries
B. MEchanical barriers
C. Chemical barriers
D. Biological barriers
79) Immediate protection is obtained from
A. Passive immunity
B. Active immunity
C. Vaccination
D. Natural active immunity
80) the immunity in which T-cells recognize the antigens or microorganisms is known as:
a)tissue grafting
b)phagocytosis
c)cell mediated immunity/ response
d)hormonal immunity / response
A. prophase
B. metaphase
C. telophase
D. anaphase
2) Mental retardation, short stature, broad face and squint eyes are the symptoms of
A. Bown's syndrome
B. Klinefelter's syndrome
C. Turner's syndrome
D. XYZ syndrome
3) Chiasmata formation takes place during the process which is known as
A. crossing over
B. attachment
C. pairing
D. leptotene
4) healing of a wound and repair is the phenomenon which takes place by the process of
A. mitosis
B. meiosis
C. cell growth
D. mitosis and meiosis
5) Which one of the following is the main cause of cancer?
A. mutation
B. controlled cell division
C. regulated mitosis
D. haploid division
6) The covalent bond formed between two monosaccharides is called
A. glycosidic bond
B. hydrogen bond
C. peptide bond
D. disulphide bond
7) The bond formed between glucose and fructose to form sucrose is
A. 1,4 glycosidic linkage
B. 1,2 glycosidic linkage
C. 1,6 glycosidic linkage
D. 1,3 glycosidic linkage
8) In an amino acid in which the R-group is hydrogen, the amino acid will be
A. Alanine
B. Glycine
C. Leucine
D. Valine
9) Fatty acid are the organic compounds containing hydrogen, oxygen and one of the following are
A. carboxylic
B. Amino
C. acyl
D. sucrose
10) Liposomes are used in gene therapy against
A. hypercholesterolemia
B. coronary artery angioplasty
C. cystic fibrosis
D.severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
11) Genetically engineered cells are introduced into bone marrow cells in the treatment of
A. hypercholesterolemia
B. severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
C. cystic fibrosis
D. coronary artery angioplasty
12) Which one of the following is depleting and causing thinning if ozone
A. chlorine
B. bromine
C. chlorofluorocarbon
D. carbon
13) The typical environment of a particular organism population community is called
A. niche
B. ecosystem
C. habitat
D. biosphere
14) Excessive enrichment of water with nutrients by human activity by which large amount of living organic matter grows is called
A. archeotrophication
B. eutrophication
C. enrichment
D. low trophication
15) In an ecosystem, mycorrihza is an example of
A. symbiosis
B. predation
C. commensalism
D. parasitism
16) Successive stages of eating and being eaten by which recycling of materials and flow of energy takes place is called
A. food chain
B. food web
C. trophic level
D. food link
17) The sex of individuals of next generation always depends on one of the parent, who is
A. Heterogametic
B. Homogametic
C. Isogametic
D. Isomorphic
18) Which of the following will be haemophilic?
a) X(H)X(h)
b) X(H)X(H)
c) X(h)Y
d) X(H)Y
19) Which of the following is an example of X-linked recessive trait in humans?
A. Hypophosphatemic rickets
B. Colour blindness
C. Baldness
D. Beard growth
20) Which trait in human is an example of multiple alleles?
A. Eye colour
B. skin colour
C. ABO- blood group
D. Rh-blood group
21) When a gene pair at one locus interacts with another gene at another locus, the interaction is called
A. Dominance
B. Multiple allelism
C. Pleiotropy
D. Epistasis
22) The combination of a pentose sugar with a base result in a compound known as
A. Nucleotide
B. Nucleoside
C. Nucleic acid
D. Polynucleotide
23) An enzyme and substrate reacts through a special feature or site present in enzyme known as
A. Building site
B. Active site
C. Catalyst site
D. Inhibition site
24) The non-protein part of enzyme which is covalently and permanently bonded is called
A. Prosthetic group
B. co-factor
C. co-enzyme
D. Activator
25) one of the pyrimidine bases is absent in DNA
a) uracil
b) thymine
c) cytosine
d) adenine
26) enzymes increase the rate of reaction by
A. increasing temperature
B. decreasing pH
C. decreasing activation energy
D. increasing activation energy
27) Which one of the following diseases caused by enveloped RNA virus and spread in epidemic form?
A. Influenza
B. Herpes simplex
C. polio
D. small pox
28) The structure which contains the gene for drug resistance bacteria are
A. Nucleoids
B. Mesosomes
C. Chromatin bodies
D. Plasmids
29) Antibiotics that kill microbes immediately are called
A. Microbistatic
B. Microbicidal
C. Biostatic
D. Chemotherapeatic
30) Which one of the following fungi cause vaginal thrush?
A. Candida
B. Aspergillus
C. tortula
D. Penicillium
31) Body cavity of round worms is called
A. Pseudocoelom
B. Coelom
C. Acoelom
D. Enteron
32) Fasciola is endoparasite of
A. Colon
B. Liver
C. Small intestine
D. Bile duct
33) Trypanosoma is transmitted in human beings by
A. Plasmodium
B. Anopheles
C. House fly
D. Tse-tse fly
34) The nervous system develops from which of the following layer during embroynic development of animals?
A. Mesoderm
B. Ectoderm
C. Endoderm
D. Mesoderm and endoderm
35) Endosperm is formed as a result of
A. pollination
B. self-pollination
C. double fertilization
D. cross pollination
36) Which of the following enzyme is released in an inactive form?
A. Amylase
B. Lipase
C. Enterokinase
D. Pepsin
37)
Which of the following hormones stimulate the secretion of pancreatic juice from pancreas in liver?
A. Secretin
B. Pepsinogen
C. Gastrin
D. Both gastrin and secretin
38) in large intestine vitamin k is formed by the activity of
A. symbiotic bacteria
B. obligate parasite
C. papasitic bacteria
D. Facultative bacteria
39) During swallowing of food which structure close nasal opening?
A. Hard palate
B. Soft palate
C. Epiglottis
D. Larynx
40) The right atrium of the heart usually receives the
A. Deoxygenated blood
B. Oxygenated blood
C. Filtered blood
D. Non-filtered blood
41) The largest lymph duct called thoracic lymph duct drains into
A. Subclavian vein
B. Renal vein
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Hepatic portal vein
42) Which protein plays a major role in maintaining osmotic balance ?
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Prothrombin
43) The type of agranulocytes which stays in blood for a few hours and then enters tissues and become macrophages is
A. Lymphocytes
B. Monocytes
C. Eosinophil
D. Basophils
44) Reabsorption of water by counter current multiplier mechanism takes place at
A. Proximal tubule
B. Distal tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. Loop of henle
45) Antidiuretic hormone helps in reabsorption of water by changing permeability of
A. Proximal tubule
B. Distal tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. Loop of henle
46) During peritoneal dialysis, the dialysis fluid is introduced into which part of human body ?
A. Liver
B. abdomen
C. Kidney
D. Pancreas
47) Aldosterone helps in conservation or active absorption of
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Bicarbonate ions
48) Maximum reabsorption takes place in which part of the nephron ?
A. Distal tubule
B. Villi
C. Cortical tissue
D. Proximal tubule
49) Over-activity of sympathetic nervous system causes
A. Disturbance of vision
B. Constipation
C. Decrease in blood pressure
D. Increase in heart rate
50) Which structures respond when they are stimulated by impulse coming through motor neuron?
A. Receptors
B. Responses
C. Effectors
D. Transduction
51) Respiratory center is located in
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Medulla
D. Hypothalamus
52) A neurological condition characterized by involuntary tremors , diminished motor activity and rigidity is called
a) epilepsy
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Cerebellar tumours
53) A type of cells in human testes which produce testosterone is called
A. interstitial cells
B. germ cells
C. sertoli cells
D. spermatocytes
54) Breakdown of endometrium during mensuration is due to
A. increase in level of LH
B. decrease in level of progesterone
C. increase in level of progesterone
D. increase in level of oestrogen
55) Oogonia are produced in the germ cells
a) both uterus and cervix
b) cervix
c) uterus
d) ovary
56) Which of the following diseases can be prevented through vaccination ?
A. AIDS and cancer
B. Malaria and AIDS
C. Typhoid and cancer
D. Measles and mumps
57) Newly produced cells/ individuals which are identical to each other are known as
A. Genetically modified
B. Transgenic animals
C. Transgenic bacterias
D. Clones
58) Which of the following is a blood borne disease ?
A. Hepatitis
B. Cholora
C. Influenza
D. candidiasis
59) The control of pest has traditionally meant regulation by natural enemies, predators, parasites and pathogens; this type of control is known as
A. Cultural control
B. Biological control
C. Pesticides control
D. Insecticides control
60) Which of the following organelles is concerned with the cell scretion
A. Ribosomes
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Lysosomes
D. Mitochondria
61) Which of the following contains peptidoglycan cell wall ?
A. Penicillium
B. Bacterium
C. Adiantum
D. Polytrychum
62) The inner membrane of mitochondria is folded to form finger like structure called
A. Cristea
B. Vesicle
C. matrix
D. cisternae
63) the interior of the chloroplast is divided into heterogeneous structure, embedded in the matrix, known as
A. Grana
B. Stroma
C. Thylakoids
D. Cisternae
64) In which phase of the cell division the metabolic activity of the nucleus is high ?
A. Mitosis
B. Interphase
C. Meiosis
D. Cell cycle
65) Luteinizing hormone triggers
A. Cessation of oogenesis
B. Breakdown of oocyte
C. Ovulation
D. Development of zygote
66) Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease which is caused by
A. HIV / AIDS
B. Pseudomonas pyogenes
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Neisseria
67) Muscles is made up of many cells which are reffered to as
A. Myofilaments
B. Myofibrils
C. Sarcolemma
D. Muscles fiber
68) The length of myofibril from one Z-band to the next is known as
A. Sarcomere
B. Sarcolemma
C. Sarcoplasm
D. Muscle fiber
69) The calcium ions released during a muscle fiber contraction attach with
A. Myosin
B. Actin
C. Tropomyosin
D. Troponin
70) A muscle condition resulting from the accumulation of lactic acid and ionic imbalance is called
A. Tetany
B. Muscle fatigue
C. Cramp
D. Tetanus
71) The pigment which stores oxygen in muscles is
A. Hemoglobin
B. Myoglobin
C. Myosin
D. Actinomyosin
72) Neurosecretory cells are present in which part of brain
A. Hypothalamus
B. Midbrain
C. PONS
D. Cerebellum
73) which of the following is the function of glucagon hormone
a) glycogen à glucose
b) glucose à glycogen
c) glucose à lipids
d) glucose à proteins
74) Addison's disease is caused due to destruction of
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Pituitary adrenal axis
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Hypothalamus
75) Which group of hormone is made up of amino acids and their derivatives ?
A. Vasopressin and antidiuretic hormone
B. Epinephrine and non-epinephrine
C. Oestrogen and testosterone
D. Insulin and glucagon
76) Thymus gland is involved in maturation of
A. Platelets
B. B-lymphocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. T-lymphocytes
77) In passive immunity which of the following component are injected into blood
A. Antigens
B. Immunogens
C. Serum
D. Immunoglobulins
78) Mucous membranes are part of body defence system and they offer
A. Physical barries
B. MEchanical barriers
C. Chemical barriers
D. Biological barriers
79) Immediate protection is obtained from
A. Passive immunity
B. Active immunity
C. Vaccination
D. Natural active immunity
80) the immunity in which T-cells recognize the antigens or microorganisms is known as:
a)tissue grafting
b)phagocytosis
c)cell mediated immunity/ response
d)hormonal immunity / response
81)oxidative
phosphorylation , synthesis of ATP in
the presence of oxygen occurs in:
A)all types of cells
B)all anaerobic cells
C)all primitive cells
D)all aerobic cells
82)glycolysis is the breakdown of glucose into two molecules of:
a)glycerate
b)lactic acid
c)pyruvate
d)succinic acid
A)all types of cells
B)all anaerobic cells
C)all primitive cells
D)all aerobic cells
82)glycolysis is the breakdown of glucose into two molecules of:
a)glycerate
b)lactic acid
c)pyruvate
d)succinic acid
83)before
entering into Kreb’s cycle , the pyruvate is first decarbox
ylated and oxidized into:
a)alpha ketoglutaric acid
b)citric acid
c)glyceric acid
d)acetic acid
ylated and oxidized into:
a)alpha ketoglutaric acid
b)citric acid
c)glyceric acid
d)acetic acid
84)
Some electron from the second primary
accepter may pass back to chlorophyll molecules by electron carrier
system , yielding ATP this
process is called
a)phosphorylation
b)photophosphorylation
c)non-cyclic phosphorylation
d) cyclic phosphorylation
85)Z-scheme is used for:
a) non-cyclic photophosphorylation
b) cyclic photophosphorylation
c)both cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation
d)oxidative phosphorylation
86)the common vectors used in recombinant DNA technology are:
A)probes
B)palindromes
C)plasmids
D)prions
a)phosphorylation
b)photophosphorylation
c)non-cyclic phosphorylation
d) cyclic phosphorylation
85)Z-scheme is used for:
a) non-cyclic photophosphorylation
b) cyclic photophosphorylation
c)both cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation
d)oxidative phosphorylation
86)the common vectors used in recombinant DNA technology are:
A)probes
B)palindromes
C)plasmids
D)prions
87)the
enzyme used to isolate gene from DNA is:
a)helicase
b)reverse transcriptase
c)restriction enzyme
d)DNA polymerase
a)helicase
b)reverse transcriptase
c)restriction enzyme
d)DNA polymerase
a)DNA polymerase i
b)Taq polymerase
c) DNA polymerase ii
d)RNA polymerase
Answers
1c
2a
3a
4a
5a
6a
7b
8b
9a
10c
11b
12c
13c
14b
15a
16a
17a
18c
19b
20c
21d
22b
23b
24a
25a
26c
27a
28d
29b
30a
31a
32d
33d
34b
35c
36d
37a
38a
38b
40a
41a
42a
43b
44d
45c
46b
47a
48d
49d
50c
51c
52b
52a
54b
55d
56d
57d
58a
59b
60b
61b
62a
63a
64b
65c
66c
67d
68a
69d
70b
71b
72a
73a
74a
75b
76d
77d
78a
79a
80c
81c
82c
83d
84d
85a
86c
87c
88b
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)
LinkWithin
